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G4 Amateur Radio Practices

60 questions in 5 groups. The exam asks 5 questions from this topic, one from each group.

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G4A Station configuration and operation

  1. G4A01

    What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

    1. A. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
    2. B. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
    3. C. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
    4. D. To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies
    Show answer

    B. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband

    A notch filter removes a very narrow slice of frequencies inside the receiver passband. Tuned to a steady carrier, such as a whistle from a station tuning up or a carrier beating against your signal, it removes that tone while leaving the rest of the wanted signal largely intact; many transceivers can find and track the tone automatically.

    • A. A notch filter on an HF transceiver works on received signals; the transmitted voice bandwidth is set by the transmitter's own filtering.
    • C. Impulse noise, such as ignition pops, is handled by a noise blanker, which mutes the receiver during each pulse; a notch removes steady tones.
    • D. Splatter from an adjacent signal is broadband distortion spread across many frequencies, which a narrow notch cannot remove.
  2. G4A02

    What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

    1. A. Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
    2. B. More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
    3. C. It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
    4. D. Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
    Show answer

    C. It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals

    To make CW audible, the receiver beats the signal against a local oscillator on one side of it. Switching to the opposite sideband (CW reverse) moves that oscillator to the other side, so an interfering signal close to the wanted one changes to a different pitch and may fall outside the receive filter, while the wanted signal keeps its pitch.

    • A. Sideband selection does not affect impulse noise, which is spread across a wide range of frequencies; a noise blanker is the tool for that.
    • B. Reversing the sideband changes how you hear signals, not how many stations fit in a passband; station spacing is set by the transmitted signals.
    • D. Receiving on the opposite sideband does not change where you transmit, so it cannot prevent out-of-band operation.
  3. G4A03

    How does a noise blanker work?

    1. A. By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
    2. B. By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
    3. C. By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
    4. D. By clipping noise peaks
    Show answer

    C. By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse

    A noise blanker detects short, strong pulses such as ignition noise or power line pops and reduces the receiver's gain (blanks it) for the brief duration of each pulse. Because the pulses are very short, muting during them removes the noise with little loss of the wanted signal.

    • A. Widening the received bandwidth would admit more noise rather than remove pulses; a blanker mutes the receiver during each pulse.
    • B. Noise pulses are not redirected into a capacitor; the blanker briefly reduces gain while each pulse lasts.
    • D. Clipping noise peaks describes a noise limiter, which cuts off peaks above a set level; a blanker instead reduces the receiver gain during each pulse.
  4. G4A04

    What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

    1. A. A pronounced peak
    2. B. A pronounced dip
    3. C. No change will be observed
    4. D. A slow, rhythmic oscillation
    Show answer

    B. A pronounced dip

    In a vacuum-tube amplifier, the TUNE (plate) control brings the output tank circuit to resonance at the operating frequency. At resonance the tank presents its highest impedance to the tube, so plate current falls to a pronounced dip, and the operator tunes for that dip.

    • A. Plate current rises as the tank moves off resonance; at the correct setting it falls to a minimum, not a peak.
    • C. Plate current changes sharply as the tank passes through resonance, which is why the dip is used to find the correct setting.
    • D. Correct tuning produces a steady dip in plate current, not a slow, rhythmic change.
  5. G4A05

    Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

    1. A. To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
    2. B. To reduce harmonic radiation
    3. C. To prevent excessive drive
    4. D. To increase overall efficiency
    Show answer

    C. To prevent excessive drive

    Automatic level control is a feedback voltage that reduces the transceiver's output when drive to the amplifier gets too high. Overdriving a linear amplifier pushes it into nonlinear operation, causing distortion and splatter, so ALC keeps drive within the range the amplifier handles cleanly.

    • A. Transmit audio frequency response is shaped by equalization and filtering, not by ALC.
    • B. Harmonics are reduced by low-pass filtering and the output tank circuit; ALC controls drive level.
    • D. ALC does not increase efficiency; it reduces drive when it gets too high so the amplifier stays linear.
  6. G4A06

    What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

    1. A. Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
    2. B. Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
    3. C. Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
    4. D. All these choices are correct
    Show answer

    C. Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line

    An antenna tuner is an impedance matching network that transforms the impedance at the transmitter end of the feed line to the 50 ohms the transmitter is designed for. The transmitter can then deliver full power into the feed line, but the tuner does not change the mismatch, SWR or loss on the feed line between the tuner and the antenna.

    • A. A tuner at the transmitter does not change the SWR on the feed line beyond it; that is set by the antenna and feed line impedances.
    • B. Feed line loss depends on the line itself and the SWR on it, which a tuner at the transmitter end does not change.
    • D. A tuner does not reduce feed line SWR or feed line loss, so not all the choices are correct.
  7. G4A07

    What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

    1. A. Received signals may become distorted
    2. B. Received frequency may become unstable
    3. C. CW signals may become severely attenuated
    4. D. Received frequency may shift several kHz
    Show answer

    A. Received signals may become distorted

    Receiver noise reduction, usually done with digital signal processing, tries to separate the wanted signal from noise and suppresses whatever it judges to be noise. At higher settings it removes more of the signal along with the noise, so voices can sound hollow, watery or distorted.

    • B. Noise reduction processes the received signal and does not affect the stability of the receiver's frequency.
    • C. Noise reduction tends to preserve steady tones such as CW; its typical side effect at high settings is distortion, not severe loss of CW signals.
    • D. Noise reduction does not change the tuned frequency; the receiver stays where it is set.
  8. G4A08

    What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

    1. A. Minimum SWR on the antenna
    2. B. Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
    3. C. Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
    4. D. Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
    Show answer

    D. Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

    The LOAD (or COUPLING) control matches the tube to the antenna system and sets how much power is drawn from the tube. Increasing loading raises both output and plate current, so the operator adjusts it, re-dipping with the TUNE control, until the desired output is reached without exceeding the tube's maximum allowable plate current.

    • A. The SWR on the antenna and feed line is set by the antenna system, not by the amplifier's LOAD control.
    • B. Minimizing plate current would mean little power output; the LOAD control is set for the desired output within the plate current rating.
    • C. Plate voltage is set by the amplifier's power supply, not by the LOAD control.
  9. G4A09

    What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

    1. A. To prevent key clicks on CW
    2. B. To prevent transient overmodulation
    3. C. To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
    4. D. To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
    Show answer

    C. To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output

    When a transceiver keys an external amplifier, relays in the amplifier take a short time, typically milliseconds, to switch the antenna from the bypass path to the amplifier output. Delaying RF output until the relays settle prevents hot switching, which can damage relay contacts and cause a brief, high SWR.

    • A. Key clicks come from CW keying edges that are too abrupt and are controlled by shaping the keying waveform, not by a keying-line delay.
    • B. Overmodulation is a matter of audio levels and drive, not of the amplifier's antenna switching time.
    • D. The amplifier's power supply is already running when it is switched on; the delay covers relay switching, not power supply startup.
  10. G4A10

    What is the function of an electronic keyer?

    1. A. Automatic transmit/receive switching
    2. B. Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
    3. C. To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
    4. D. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
    Show answer

    B. Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation

    An electronic keyer turns paddle movements into correctly timed CW: holding one paddle sends a string of dots and the other a string of dashes, at a set speed with correct spacing. Many transceivers include a built-in keyer.

    • A. Transmit and receive switching is done by the transceiver's T/R circuits, VOX or break-in, not by the keyer.
    • C. Allowing time to switch an antenna is the job of a transmit delay setting, not a keyer.
    • D. PSK and RTTY need a computer interface such as a sound card interface, not a CW keyer.
  11. G4A11

    Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

    1. A. ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
    2. B. The ALC action distorts the signal
    3. C. When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
    4. D. All these choices are correct
    Show answer

    B. The ALC action distorts the signal

    AFSK data modes send audio tones whose amplitude and phase must be reproduced cleanly. ALC action changes the transmitter gain in response to the signal, which distorts it and can widen it, so operators set the audio drive low enough that ALC stays inactive.

    • A. ALC adjusts gain; it does not invert the modulation of an AFSK signal.
    • C. Overheating comes from long, high-duty-cycle transmissions at too much power, not from ALC activity.
    • D. ALC does not invert modulation or cause overheating, so not all the choices are correct.
  12. G4A12

    Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

    1. A. To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
    2. B. To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
    3. C. To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
    4. D. To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
    Show answer

    C. To transmit on one frequency and listen on another

    With two VFOs, a transceiver can receive on one frequency and transmit on another, called split operation. DX stations often listen a few kHz away from their transmit frequency to spread out callers, and the second VFO makes this easy.

    • A. A dual-VFO transceiver transmits on only one frequency at a time; the second VFO sets a second frequency to switch to.
    • B. Dual VFOs let a transceiver switch between two frequencies; they do not make it transmit and receive at the same time.
    • D. VFO stands for variable frequency oscillator, and the second one adds a second tuned frequency; it does not improve frequency accuracy.
  13. G4A13

    What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

    1. A. To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
    2. B. To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
    3. C. To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
    4. D. To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
    Show answer

    A. To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals

    A receive attenuator reduces the level of all signals at the receiver input by a set number of decibels. With a very strong nearby signal, that keeps the receiver's front end from overloading and producing intermodulation or desensitization, at the cost of weakening weak signals too.

    • B. Transmitter drive to a linear amplifier is set with the transmitter's power control; a receive attenuator acts only on received signals.
    • C. A receive attenuator is a passive network in the signal path and does not meaningfully reduce power consumption.
    • D. Audio level is set with the volume control; the attenuator reduces RF signal strength at the receiver input to prevent overload.

G4B Tests and test equipment

  1. G4B01

    What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

    1. A. An ohmmeter
    2. B. A signal generator
    3. C. An ammeter
    4. D. An oscilloscope
    Show answer

    D. An oscilloscope

    An oscilloscope draws a graph of a signal on its screen. The vertical channel amplifier scales the signal voltage to move the trace up and down, and the horizontal channel amplifier moves it across the screen, usually driven by a time base, so the instrument displays waveforms.

    • A. An ohmmeter measures resistance as a single reading; it has no horizontal or vertical display channels.
    • B. A signal generator produces test signals rather than displaying them.
    • C. An ammeter measures current as a single value and has no display channels.
  2. G4B02

    Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

    1. A. An oscilloscope uses less power
    2. B. Complex impedances can be easily measured
    3. C. Greater precision
    4. D. Complex waveforms can be measured
    Show answer

    D. Complex waveforms can be measured

    A digital voltmeter reports a single number, such as an RMS or average value, while an oscilloscope shows the shape of a voltage over time. That lets you see distortion, pulses, modulation envelopes and other complex waveforms that a meter reduces to one reading.

    • A. An oscilloscope usually uses more power than a voltmeter, so lower power use is not an advantage.
    • B. Complex impedances are measured with impedance bridges, antenna analyzers or network analyzers, not easily with an oscilloscope.
    • C. A good digital voltmeter usually reads voltage more precisely than an oscilloscope; the scope's advantage is showing the waveform.
  3. G4B03

    Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

    1. A. An oscilloscope
    2. B. A field strength meter
    3. C. A sidetone monitor
    4. D. A wavemeter
    Show answer

    A. An oscilloscope

    An oscilloscope displays the envelope of the transmitted CW signal, so you can see the rise and fall of each keyed element. Edges that are too abrupt cause key clicks, while edges that are too slow make the code sound soft, so the scope shows whether keying is shaped properly.

    • B. A field strength meter shows relative signal strength, not the shape of individual keyed elements.
    • C. A sidetone monitor produces an audio tone inside the radio when you key; it does not show the transmitted RF waveform.
    • D. A wavemeter indicates approximate frequency, not the shape of the keying waveform.
  4. G4B04

    What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

    1. A. The local oscillator of the transmitter
    2. B. An external RF oscillator
    3. C. The transmitter balanced mixer output
    4. D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
    Show answer

    D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

    To see the RF envelope, a sample of the transmitter's actual RF output, reduced by an attenuator or sampler to a safe level, goes to the oscilloscope's vertical input. The trace then shows the envelope of the transmitted signal, such as the shape of CW keying or a two-tone test pattern.

    • A. The local oscillator is an internal signal used for frequency conversion, not the transmitted output whose envelope you want to see.
    • B. An external RF oscillator would show its own signal, not the envelope of the transmitted signal.
    • C. The balanced mixer output is an internal low-level stage before amplification and filtering, not the final transmitted signal.
  5. G4B05

    Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

    1. A. It improves the frequency response
    2. B. It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
    3. C. It improves the resolution of the readings
    4. D. It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
    Show answer

    D. It decreases the loading on circuits being measured

    A voltmeter connects in parallel with the part of the circuit it measures, so any current it draws changes the voltage being measured. A high input impedance, often around 10 megohms for a digital meter, draws very little current, keeping the reading close to the true circuit voltage.

    • A. High input impedance does not set the meter's frequency response; its purpose is to keep the meter from loading the circuit.
    • B. Safe measurement of high voltages depends on the meter's voltage rating and insulation, not on its input impedance.
    • C. Resolution depends on the display and converter, such as how many digits a digital meter shows, not on input impedance.
  6. G4B06

    What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

    1. A. Better for measuring computer circuits
    2. B. Less prone to overload
    3. C. Higher precision
    4. D. Faster response
    Show answer

    C. Higher precision

    A digital multimeter displays its reading as digits, so you can read a value to several significant figures without interpreting a needle's position on a scale. That gives it higher precision than a typical analog multimeter.

    • A. Either type of meter can measure voltages in computer circuits; the digital meter's main advantage is the precision of its numeric display.
    • B. Digital meters are not inherently less prone to overload; either type can be damaged by excessive voltage or current on the wrong range.
    • D. An analog meter's needle shows changing values more readily, which is why it is preferred for peaking and dipping adjustments.
  7. G4B07

    What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

    1. A. Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
    2. B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals
    3. C. Two swept frequency tones
    4. D. Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
    Show answer

    B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals

    A two-tone test feeds two audio tones of equal level into an SSB transmitter's audio input, for example 700 Hz and 1900 Hz, chosen so neither is a harmonic of the other. The output then shows whether the transmitter reproduces both tones without creating extra intermodulation products.

    • A. Two tones of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees add up to a single tone, which cannot reveal intermodulation.
    • C. Swept tones are used to measure frequency response, not to run a two-tone linearity test.
    • D. Square waves contain many harmonics, which would confuse the measurement; the test uses two sine-wave tones.
  8. G4B08

    What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

    1. A. Linearity
    2. B. Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
    3. C. Percentage of frequency modulation
    4. D. Percentage of carrier phase shift
    Show answer

    A. Linearity

    A linear amplifier's output should be an exact scaled copy of its input. When two tones go in, any nonlinearity creates intermodulation products at new frequencies and distorts the envelope pattern on an oscilloscope, so the two-tone test measures the transmitter's linearity.

    • B. Carrier and unwanted sideband suppression are separate SSB measurements; the two-tone test looks for distortion caused by nonlinearity.
    • C. Percentage of frequency modulation applies to FM transmitters; the two-tone test examines the amplitude linearity of an SSB transmitter.
    • D. Carrier phase shift is not what the two-tone test analyzes; it reveals nonlinearity through intermodulation products.
  9. G4B09

    When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

    1. A. When testing logic circuits
    2. B. When high precision is desired
    3. C. When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
    4. D. When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
    Show answer

    D. When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values

    An analog meter's needle moves smoothly and continuously, so you can watch a value rise to a peak or fall to a dip as you turn an adjustment. A digital display updates a few times per second with changing digits, which makes trends harder to follow while tuning.

    • A. Logic circuits switch between fixed voltage levels that a digital meter or logic probe reads well; an analog meter offers no advantage there.
    • B. High precision is an advantage of a digital multimeter, not an analog one.
    • C. An ordinary analog multimeter cannot measure an oscillator's frequency; that takes a frequency counter.
  10. G4B10

    Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

    1. A. Standing wave ratio
    2. B. Antenna front-to-back ratio
    3. C. RF interference
    4. D. Radio wave propagation
    Show answer

    A. Standing wave ratio

    A directional wattmeter measures forward power and reflected power separately, and SWR follows from the two readings: SWR = (1 + √(Pr / Pf)) / (1 - √(Pr / Pf)). For example, 100 W forward and 4 W reflected gives √0.04 = 0.2, so SWR = 1.2 / 0.8 = 1.5:1.

    • B. Front-to-back ratio compares an antenna's radiation in two directions and requires measuring field strength around the antenna.
    • C. RF interference is identified by listening and by locating its source, not by forward and reflected power readings.
    • D. Propagation depends on the ionosphere and the path, which a wattmeter in the feed line cannot measure.
  11. G4B11

    Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

    1. A. Receiver
    2. B. Transmitter
    3. C. Antenna and feed line
    4. D. All these choices are correct
    Show answer

    C. Antenna and feed line

    An antenna analyzer contains its own low-power signal source and measuring circuit. To measure SWR you connect it to the antenna system's feed line in place of the transceiver; no transmitter or receiver is needed.

    • A. The analyzer has its own detector, so a receiver is not needed.
    • B. The analyzer generates its own low-level test signal, so a transmitter is not needed and could damage the analyzer.
    • D. Neither a receiver nor a transmitter is needed, so not all the choices are correct.
  12. G4B12

    What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

    1. A. Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
    2. B. Received power that interferes with SWR readings
    3. C. Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
    4. D. All these choices are correct
    Show answer

    B. Received power that interferes with SWR readings

    An antenna analyzer measures SWR using its own very low-power signal. A strong signal from a nearby transmitter, picked up by the antenna, adds unwanted power at the analyzer's detector, so the SWR and impedance readings become inaccurate.

    • A. Desensitization and intermodulation are not the mechanism; the received power itself reaches the analyzer's detector and upsets the reading.
    • C. Nearby signals do not make the analyzer generate harmonics; they add received power that throws off the SWR reading.
    • D. Only the received power effect applies, so not all the choices are correct.
  13. G4B13

    Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

    1. A. Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
    2. B. Power output from a transmitter
    3. C. Impedance of coaxial cable
    4. D. Gain of a directional antenna
    Show answer

    C. Impedance of coaxial cable

    An antenna analyzer measures the impedance of whatever is connected to it at the frequency it generates. Connected to a length of coaxial cable, it can measure the cable's impedance, which also lets you find the cable's characteristic impedance and electrical length.

    • A. Front-to-back ratio requires measuring the radiated field in front of and behind the antenna, which an analyzer at the feed line cannot do.
    • B. An antenna analyzer generates only a low-level test signal and must not be connected to a transmitter's output; power is measured with a wattmeter.
    • D. Antenna gain describes radiation in a direction compared with a reference antenna; an analyzer measures impedance, not radiation.

G4C Interference to consumer electronics; grounding and bonding

  1. G4C01

    Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

    1. A. Bypass inductor
    2. B. Bypass capacitor
    3. C. Forward-biased diode
    4. D. Reverse-biased diode
    Show answer

    B. Bypass capacitor

    A capacitor's reactance falls as frequency rises (Xc = 1 / (2πfC)). A 0.01 µF bypass capacitor from an audio line to ground has about 1.1 ohms of reactance at 14 MHz but about 15.9 kilohms at 1 kHz, so it shunts RF to ground while leaving the audio signal nearly untouched.

    • A. An inductor's reactance rises with frequency, so connected to ground it would short out the audio while blocking RF, the opposite of what is needed.
    • C. A diode does not bypass RF to ground; diode junctions that rectify RF are a common cause of audio interference.
    • D. A reverse-biased diode acts mainly as a small capacitance and is not a practical RF bypass; diode junctions that rectify RF are a common cause of audio interference.
  2. G4C02

    Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

    1. A. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
    2. B. Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
    3. C. Arcing at a poor electrical connection
    4. D. Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
    Show answer

    C. Arcing at a poor electrical connection

    An electric arc, such as at a loose or corroded connection on a power line, produces sharp bursts of current that contain energy across a very wide range of frequencies. The result is a buzzing or crackling noise heard across many bands.

    • A. Feeding a balanced antenna without a balun can put common-mode current on the feed line and cause local RF problems, but it does not produce noise across a wide range of frequencies.
    • B. Rectification of a transmitter's signal, for example at a corroded junction, can cause interference; a lack of rectification is not a cause.
    • D. A balun used with an unbalanced antenna may be unnecessary, but it does not generate interference across a wide range of frequencies.
  3. G4C03

    What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

    1. A. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
    2. B. On-and-off humming or clicking
    3. C. Distorted speech
    4. D. Clearly audible speech
    Show answer

    C. Distorted speech

    An audio device that picks up an SSB signal rectifies it, recovering the varying envelope without the carrier needed to demodulate SSB properly. The result is distorted, garbled speech that rises and falls with the operator's voice.

    • A. An SSB transmitter puts out RF only when the operator speaks, so it does not cause a steady hum the whole time it is on the air.
    • B. On-and-off humming or clicking matches a keyed CW transmitter, not SSB voice.
    • D. Without the carrier needed to demodulate SSB, the audio device cannot reproduce clear speech; the speech it produces is distorted.
  4. G4C04

    What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

    1. A. On-and-off humming or clicking
    2. B. A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
    3. C. A chirpy CW signal
    4. D. Severely distorted audio
    Show answer

    A. On-and-off humming or clicking

    A CW transmitter turns its carrier on and off. An audio device that rectifies the RF responds to each keyed element, producing humming, thumps or clicks that follow the keying.

    • B. Rectifying a CW carrier produces a change in level, not a clean audio tone; hearing CW as a tone requires a receiver's beat frequency oscillator.
    • C. A chirpy CW signal is what a receiver hears from a transmitter whose frequency shifts during keying; an audio device rectifying RF does not reproduce chirp.
    • D. Severely distorted audio describes interference from a voice signal such as SSB, not from keyed CW.
  5. G4C05

    What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

    1. A. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
    2. B. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
    3. C. The ground rod is resonant
    4. D. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
    Show answer

    D. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

    A ground wire whose length is a significant fraction of a wavelength, such as about a quarter wavelength, presents a high impedance at the equipment end at that frequency. RF current then cannot flow to ground easily, so high RF voltage appears on equipment cases and microphones and can cause RF burns.

    • A. Flat strap or braid has less inductance than round wire of similar size and is often preferred for RF grounding; it does not cause high voltages.
    • B. Insulation on a ground wire does not cause high RF voltages; the wire's impedance at the operating frequency, set largely by its length, does.
    • C. The cause is the high impedance of the ground wire at the operating frequency, not resonance of the ground rod itself.
  6. G4C06

    What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

    1. A. Overheating of ground straps
    2. B. Corrosion of the ground rod
    3. C. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
    4. D. A ground loop
    Show answer

    C. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

    A ground wire about a quarter wavelength long (about 5.4 m at 14 MHz) behaves like a shorted quarter-wave transmission line: shorted at the ground end, it presents a high impedance at the station end. The equipment chassis then carries high RF voltage instead of sitting near ground potential, which can cause RF burns and interference.

    • A. A resonant ground connection presents a high impedance, so ground straps carry little current; the problem is high voltage, not overheating.
    • B. Corrosion of a ground rod comes from moisture and dissimilar metals, not from the RF resonance of the ground connection.
    • D. A ground loop forms when equipment is grounded through more than one path, which is a wiring layout issue, not a resonance effect.
  7. G4C07

    Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

    1. A. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
    2. B. Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
    3. C. Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
    4. D. All these choices are correct
    Show answer

    A. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike

    A lightning strike drives an enormous current through ground connections, heating them enough to melt solder and leave the joint open when protection is needed. Lightning ground connections are therefore welded or made with mechanical clamps rated for the purpose.

    • B. Solder flux has nothing to do with lightning ground performance; the problem is that the solder melts under the strike's heat.
    • C. Dielectric constant describes insulators; solder is a conductor, so the term does not apply.
    • D. Only the heat problem is real, so not all the choices are correct.
  8. G4C08

    Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

    1. A. Place a ferrite choke on the cable
    2. B. Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal
    3. C. Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
    4. D. Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable
    Show answer

    A. Place a ferrite choke on the cable

    Common-mode current flows in the same direction on all conductors of a cable, often on the outside of the shield, so the cable acts as an antenna for RF. A ferrite choke around the cable adds impedance to that common-mode current while leaving the audio signal, which flows in opposite directions on the conductors, unaffected.

    • B. Connecting the center conductor to the shield would short out the audio signal and make the cable useless.
    • C. Grounding the center conductor shorts out the audio signal the cable is supposed to carry.
    • D. An extra insulating jacket does not affect RF current flowing on the cable's conductors.
  9. G4C09

    How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

    1. A. Connect all ground conductors in series
    2. B. Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
    3. C. Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
    4. D. Bond equipment enclosures together
    Show answer

    D. Bond equipment enclosures together

    A ground loop forms when equipment is connected to ground through more than one path, so small voltage differences between the paths drive current around the loop and add hum or noise. Bonding all equipment enclosures together with short, heavy connections keeps them at the same potential and minimizes those currents.

    • A. Connecting grounds in series daisy-chains the equipment, leaving voltage differences between units; it does not minimize ground loops.
    • B. The AC neutral is bonded to ground only at the service entrance under electrical codes; connecting it elsewhere is unsafe and does not cure ground loops.
    • C. Lock washers and star washers help make secure, low-resistance ground connections, so avoiding them would not help.
  10. G4C10

    What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

    1. A. You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
    2. B. The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
    3. C. An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
    4. D. You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
    Show answer

    A. You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal

    A ground loop in audio wiring, for example between a computer sound card interface and the radio, lets power line current flow in a cable shield. That adds hum at the power line frequency and its harmonics to the transmit audio, so other stations report hum on your signal.

    • B. A sudden high SWR points to a problem in an antenna or feed line, not to the audio ground system.
    • C. Excessive current draw points to a fault inside the equipment, such as a failed component, not to an audio ground loop.
    • D. Harmonic interference comes from the transmitter's RF output and is cured by filtering, not by changing audio grounding.
  11. G4C11

    What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

    1. A. Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
    2. B. Using surge suppressor power outlets
    3. C. Bonding all equipment enclosures together
    4. D. Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
    Show answer

    C. Bonding all equipment enclosures together

    RF hot spots are places where equipment cases or cables carry RF voltage relative to one another. Bonding all equipment enclosures together with short, wide conductors keeps them at the same RF potential, reducing hot spots and stray RF in the station.

    • A. Metal enclosures shield the circuits inside, but separate enclosures can still sit at different RF potentials unless they are bonded together.
    • B. Surge suppressor outlets protect against voltage spikes on the AC line; they do not equalize RF potential between equipment.
    • D. Low-pass filters reduce harmonics leaving the transmitter; they do not prevent RF voltage differences between enclosures.
  12. G4C12

    Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

    1. A. It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
    2. B. It prevents signal overload
    3. C. It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
    4. D. It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
    Show answer

    D. It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis

    If a live wire inside an AC-powered device touches its metal case, a grounded case gives the fault current a low-resistance path that trips the breaker or blows the fuse. Without that ground the case could sit at line voltage and shock anyone who touches it.

    • A. Grounding does the opposite: with an internal short to the case, it makes the fuse or breaker open promptly, removing power.
    • B. Signal overload is a receiver problem that grounding the enclosure does not prevent.
    • C. The neutral is grounded at the building's electrical service entrance, not by grounding equipment enclosures.

G4D Speech processors; S meters; sideband operation near band edges

  1. G4D01

    What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

    1. A. Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
    2. B. Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
    3. C. Prevent distortion of voice signals
    4. D. Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
    Show answer

    A. Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

    A speech processor compresses or clips voice peaks so the quieter parts of speech are raised closer to the peak level. Average power rises while peak power stays the same, so the signal sounds louder and cuts through noise and interference more effectively.

    • B. Speech processing is not used to add bass; communications audio usually reduces low frequencies to improve intelligibility.
    • C. A speech processor adds some distortion, especially when overdriven; it does not prevent distortion.
    • D. A speech processor does not cut high frequencies to keep a signal in band; staying in band depends on transmit filtering and on operating far enough from band edges.
  2. G4D02

    How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

    1. A. It increases peak power
    2. B. It increases average power
    3. C. It reduces harmonic distortion
    4. D. It reduces intermodulation distortion
    Show answer

    B. It increases average power

    Speech has high peaks with a much lower average power. A speech processor raises the lower-level parts of the waveform relative to the peaks, so average power goes up while peak envelope power stays at the transmitter's limit.

    • A. Peak power is limited by the transmitter and amplifier; processing raises average power, not peak power.
    • C. Processing, especially clipping, tends to add harmonic distortion rather than reduce it.
    • D. Processing does not reduce intermodulation distortion; excessive processing adds distortion products to the signal.
  3. G4D03

    What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

    1. A. Distorted speech
    2. B. Excess intermodulation products
    3. C. Excessive background noise
    4. D. All these choices are correct
    Show answer

    D. All these choices are correct

    Too much speech processing distorts the voice, generates intermodulation products that widen the signal and cause splatter, and raises the level of background noise picked up by the microphone along with the speech.

    • A. Distorted speech is one result of a misadjusted processor, but intermodulation products and excessive background noise occur too.
    • B. Excess intermodulation products are one result, but distorted speech and excessive background noise occur too.
    • C. Excessive background noise is one result, because processing boosts quiet sounds such as room noise, but distortion and intermodulation occur too.
  4. G4D04

    What does an S meter measure?

    1. A. Carrier suppression
    2. B. Impedance
    3. C. Received signal strength
    4. D. Transmitter power output
    Show answer

    C. Received signal strength

    An S meter on a receiver indicates the relative strength of the received signal, in S units from S1 to S9 and in decibels over S9 for stronger signals.

    • A. Carrier suppression is checked with transmitter test equipment such as a spectrum analyzer, not an S meter.
    • B. Impedance is measured with an antenna analyzer or impedance bridge, not an S meter.
    • D. Transmitter power output is measured with a wattmeter; the S meter indicates received signal strength.
  5. G4D05

    How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

    1. A. It is 10 times less powerful
    2. B. It is 20 times less powerful
    3. C. It is 20 times more powerful
    4. D. It is 100 times more powerful
    Show answer

    D. It is 100 times more powerful

    Decibels express power ratios: ratio = 10^(dB / 10). A signal 20 dB over S9 is 10^(20 / 10) = 10^2 = 100 times more powerful than an S9 signal.

    • A. A reading above S9 means more power, not less, and 20 dB is a factor of 100, not 10.
    • B. A reading above S9 means more power, not less, and 20 dB is a factor of 100, not 20.
    • C. 20 dB is not 20 times; each 10 dB is a factor of 10, so 20 dB is 10 x 10 = 100 times.
  6. G4D06

    How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

    1. A. 6 dB
    2. B. 12 dB
    3. C. 15 dB
    4. D. 18 dB
    Show answer

    A. 6 dB

    By the usual convention, one S unit represents 6 dB, which is about four times the power (10^(6 / 10) = 3.98) or twice the voltage. Real S meters often depart from this calibration, but 6 dB per S unit is the standard figure.

    • B. 12 dB would be two S units under the 6 dB convention.
    • C. 15 dB is not the standard S unit; it would be two and a half S units.
    • D. 18 dB corresponds to three S units, not one.
  7. G4D07

    How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

    1. A. Approximately 1.5 times
    2. B. Approximately 2 times
    3. C. Approximately 4 times
    4. D. Approximately 8 times
    Show answer

    C. Approximately 4 times

    One S unit is 6 dB, and a 6 dB increase is a power ratio of 10^(6 / 10) = 3.98. Raising the reading at the distant receiver from S8 to S9 therefore takes about 4 times the transmitter power, such as going from 25 W to 100 W.

    • A. 1.5 times the power is only about 1.8 dB, well short of one S unit.
    • B. 2 times the power is about 3 dB, half of an S unit.
    • D. 8 times the power is about 9 dB, one and a half S units.
  8. G4D08

    What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

    1. A. 7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
    2. B. 7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
    3. C. 7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
    4. D. 7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
    Show answer

    C. 7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz

    Lower sideband places the signal below the displayed carrier frequency. A 3 kHz wide LSB signal with the carrier at 7.178 MHz occupies 7.178 - 0.003 = 7.175 MHz up to 7.178 MHz, which puts its lower edge exactly at 7.175 MHz, the bottom of the General class phone segment on 40 meters.

    • A. 7.178 to 7.181 MHz is where an upper sideband signal would be; LSB extends below the carrier.
    • B. 7.178 to 7.184 MHz is 6 kHz wide and above the carrier, which fits neither a 3 kHz signal nor LSB.
    • D. 7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz centers the signal on the carrier, but a sideband signal lies entirely on one side of its carrier.
  9. G4D09

    What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

    1. A. 14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
    2. B. 14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz
    3. C. 14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
    4. D. 14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
    Show answer

    B. 14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz

    Upper sideband places the signal above the displayed carrier frequency. A 3 kHz wide USB signal with the carrier at 14.347 MHz occupies 14.347 MHz up to 14.347 + 0.003 = 14.350 MHz, which ends exactly at 14.350 MHz, the top of the 20 meter band.

    • A. 14.347 to 14.647 MHz is 300 kHz wide; it mistakes 3 kHz for 0.3 MHz.
    • C. 14.344 to 14.347 MHz lies below the carrier, where a lower sideband signal would be.
    • D. 14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz centers the signal on the carrier, but a sideband signal lies entirely on one side of its carrier.
  10. G4D10

    How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

    1. A. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
    2. B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
    3. C. At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
    4. D. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
    Show answer

    A. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment

    An LSB signal extends below its displayed carrier frequency, and 47 CFR 97.307(b) requires emissions resulting from modulation to be confined to the band or segment available to the control operator. A 3 kHz wide LSB signal therefore needs its carrier at least 3 kHz above the lower edge, for example 7.178 MHz or higher where a General's 40 meter phone segment starts at 7.175 MHz.

    • B. A carrier below the lower edge puts the entire LSB signal outside the segment.
    • C. A carrier below the lower edge puts the entire LSB signal outside the segment.
    • D. A carrier only 1 kHz above the edge leaves 2 kHz of a 3 kHz wide LSB signal below the segment edge.
  11. G4D11

    How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

    1. A. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
    2. B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
    3. C. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
    4. D. At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
    Show answer

    B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band

    A USB signal extends above its displayed carrier frequency, and 47 CFR 97.307(b) requires emissions resulting from modulation to be confined to the band or segment available to the control operator. A 3 kHz wide USB signal therefore needs its carrier at least 3 kHz below the upper edge, for example 14.347 MHz or lower at the 14.350 MHz top of the 20 meter band.

    • A. A carrier above the upper edge puts the entire USB signal outside the band.
    • C. A carrier above the upper edge puts the entire USB signal outside the segment.
    • D. A carrier only 1 kHz below the edge leaves 2 kHz of a 3 kHz wide USB signal beyond the segment edge.

G4E Mobile and portable HF stations; alternative energy source operation

  1. G4E01

    What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

    1. A. To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
    2. B. To reduce radiation resistance
    3. C. To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
    4. D. To lower the radiation angle
    Show answer

    C. To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna

    A capacitance hat is a set of spokes, a disk or a similar structure near the top of a shortened vertical antenna. It adds capacitance at the top, which keeps current flowing higher up the antenna and lowers its resonant frequency, so a physically short antenna acts electrically longer and needs less loading inductance.

    • A. A capacitance hat does not raise power handling; its purpose is to make the antenna act electrically longer.
    • B. Top loading with a capacitance hat raises radiation resistance by keeping more current higher up the antenna, the opposite of reducing it.
    • D. Lowering the radiation angle is not the purpose of a capacitance hat; it makes a short antenna resonate at a lower frequency.
  2. G4E02

    What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

    1. A. To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
    2. B. To increase the “Q” of the antenna
    3. C. To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
    4. D. To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
    Show answer

    D. To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting

    The tip of a shortened HF mobile antenna carries very high RF voltage while transmitting. A sharp point concentrates the electric field and can produce corona discharge, so a smooth ball on the tip spreads the field over a larger surface and reduces the discharge.

    • A. Narrowing the operating bandwidth is not the purpose; the ball smooths the tip to reduce discharge.
    • B. Raising the antenna's Q is not the purpose; the ball limits corona discharge at the high-voltage tip.
    • C. Protection from impacts is not the purpose; the ball spreads the high RF voltage at the tip to reduce discharge.
  3. G4E03

    Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

    1. A. To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
    2. B. To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
    3. C. To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
    4. D. To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
    Show answer

    A. To the battery using heavy-gauge wire

    A 100 W HF transceiver can draw around 20 A when transmitting. Connecting it directly to the battery with heavy-gauge wire, fused close to the battery, keeps voltage drop low, and the battery helps smooth out electrical noise and voltage spikes from the vehicle's charging system.

    • B. The alternator's output carries voltage spikes and noise, and it is not a suitable direct connection point for a transceiver; the battery is.
    • C. Balanced transmission line is designed to carry RF, not high DC current; power wiring should be heavy-gauge wire.
    • D. This combines two errors: the alternator is the wrong connection point and balanced transmission line is not power wire.
  4. G4E04

    Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

    1. A. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
    2. B. The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
    3. C. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
    4. D. Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
    Show answer

    B. The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

    A 100 W HF transceiver can draw around 20 A when transmitting. The wiring and fuse for a vehicle's auxiliary power socket are often not rated for that much current, which can cause excessive voltage drop, blown fuses or overheated wiring.

    • A. DC power wiring does not need RF shielding; the problem is that the socket's wiring may not carry the current.
    • C. The socket's DC polarity is not reversed relative to transceivers; the concern is that its wiring cannot safely carry the transceiver's current.
    • D. Drawing power from the socket does not overheat the engine; the risk is to the socket's wiring and fuse.
  5. G4E05

    Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

    1. A. “Picket fencing”
    2. B. The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
    3. C. Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
    4. D. FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
    Show answer

    C. Efficiency of the electrically short antenna

    HF wavelengths are long (about 79 m at 3.8 MHz), so a vehicle antenna is a small fraction of a wavelength. Its low radiation resistance compared with losses in the loading coil and ground system turns much of the transmitter power into heat, which limits a mobile station more than its other constraints.

    • A. Picket fencing is the rapid flutter heard as a mobile station moves past obstructions, mainly on VHF FM; it is a nuisance, not the main HF mobile limitation.
    • B. Proper heavy-gauge wire solves DC power wiring problems; the antenna's efficiency remains the main limit.
    • D. Part 97 has no separate power limit for mobile stations on 75 meters; the 1.5 kW PEP limit in 47 CFR 97.313(b) applies to all stations.
  6. G4E06

    What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

    1. A. Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
    2. B. Q of the antenna will be very low
    3. C. Operating bandwidth may be very limited
    4. D. Harmonic radiation may increase
    Show answer

    C. Operating bandwidth may be very limited

    A shortened antenna relies on a loading coil to reach resonance, which gives it a high Q. A high-Q antenna stays well matched over only a narrow range of frequencies, so on the lower HF bands a small change in operating frequency can require retuning.

    • A. A short antenna does not distort the transmitted modulation; its drawbacks are low efficiency and narrow bandwidth.
    • B. Loaded short antennas have a high Q, not a low one, and that high Q is what narrows their bandwidth.
    • D. Harmonic radiation is controlled by the transmitter's filtering; a short antenna does not increase it.
  7. G4E07

    Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

    1. A. The battery charging system
    2. B. The fuel delivery system
    3. C. The control computers
    4. D. All these choices are correct
    Show answer

    D. All these choices are correct

    Modern vehicles contain many sources of electrical noise. The alternator and charging system create whine, electric fuel pumps generate motor noise, and the engine and body control computers radiate digital noise, all of which can be heard in an HF receiver.

    • A. The battery charging system, especially alternator whine, can cause interference, but it is not the only source.
    • B. The fuel delivery system, including the electric fuel pump, can cause interference, but other systems do too.
    • C. Control computers radiate noise from their digital circuits, but they are one of several sources.
  8. G4E08

    In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

    1. A. Series-parallel
    2. B. Shunt
    3. C. Bypass
    4. D. Full-wave bridge
    Show answer

    A. Series-parallel

    Solar cells are connected in series to add their voltages (each silicon cell gives about 0.5 V), and series strings are connected in parallel to add their currents. This series-parallel arrangement lets a panel reach a useful voltage and current; 36 cells in series is a common design for charging 12 V batteries.

    • B. Shunt describes a component placed in parallel, such as a meter shunt; it is not the arrangement of cells in a panel.
    • C. Bypass diodes are added across groups of cells to carry current around shaded cells, but bypass is not how the cells themselves are connected.
    • D. A full-wave bridge is a four-diode rectifier that converts AC to DC; solar cells already produce DC.
  9. G4E09

    What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

    1. A. 0.02 VDC
    2. B. 0.5 VDC
    3. C. 0.2 VDC
    4. D. 1.38 VDC
    Show answer

    B. 0.5 VDC

    A fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell produces roughly 0.5 to 0.6 V open circuit, set by the properties of the silicon junction regardless of the cell's size. Cell area sets the current, so panels connect many cells in series to reach useful voltages.

    • A. 0.02 V is far too low; a silicon cell in full sun produces about 0.5 V.
    • C. 0.2 V is too low for an illuminated silicon cell, which produces about 0.5 V.
    • D. 1.38 V is far more than one silicon solar cell produces; it would take nearly three cells in series.
  10. G4E10

    Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

    1. A. To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage
    2. B. To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
    3. C. To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
    4. D. To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
    Show answer

    B. To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination

    When the panel is dark, its voltage falls below the battery's, and current would flow backward from the battery through the panel. A series (blocking) diode conducts only from the panel to the battery, so it stops this discharge.

    • A. A diode does not regulate voltage; that is the job of a charge controller.
    • C. A series diode does not limit current to a set value; it conducts in one direction only.
    • D. Protecting the battery from excessive voltage takes a charge controller; a diode only blocks reverse current.
  11. G4E11

    What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

    1. A. Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
    2. B. Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
    3. C. A series resistor must be in place
    4. D. The solar panel must have a charge controller
    Show answer

    D. The solar panel must have a charge controller

    Lithium iron phosphate batteries must be charged within specific voltage and current limits, and overcharging can damage them and create a safety hazard. A charge controller set for LiFePO4 regulates the panel's output to the correct charging profile.

    • A. Grounding the panel frame is sound electrical practice, but it does not protect the battery from incorrect charging.
    • B. Mounting orientation does not address the main risk, which is charging the battery at the wrong voltage or current.
    • C. A series resistor wastes power and cannot regulate the charging voltage; a charge controller is needed.